Let me start by making it very clear that I am no constitutional scholar. I am the furthermost thing from a lawyer, as I am an engineer. So please forgive me if I go too far in applying plain common sense and a literal Interpretation of words and grammar to this topic.
First of all, let's start with the United States Constitution. Article I, Section 8, Clause 8 of the United States Constitution (often referred to as the "Copyright Clause") forms the basis on which Congress established the U.S. Patent and Copyright law. That clause is as follows:
Question 1
How does this clause establish that Authors (and Inventors for that matter) can sell their rights?
And even if we grant that Authors and Inventors can sell their rights to their writings and discoveries, how does that grant congress the power to allow companies and individuals who are not authors nor inventors to continue to sell these exclusive rights?
This is important when you consider how Apple, Microsoft and others just purchased Nortel's patents. Nortel was assigned these rights by actual inventors (mostly their employees, one presumes). But now Nortel is selling them to Apple and Microsoft. In the end, these "Discoveries" are controlled by parties that had nothing to do with the development of these Discoveries. These parties can now deny other companies access to these Discoveries, or extract payments for access to these Discoveries, and all without having done anything to "promote progress".
Ignoring the fact that there is little way to justify this state of affairs in the context of promoting progress, it remains that this clause seems to have been expanded to mean:
Question 2
How can a copyright term of an Author's life + 70 years be constitutional?
Here the law is quite clearly creating something beyond the Copyright clause. By definition an Author is *not* granted exclusive rights to their writings by current copyright law, because by law the exclusive rights must extend past the death of the Author!
It would seem reasonable to assume that the "limited Times" referred to in the constitution should at least be possible for an Author to possess. The assumption that these rights might pass from the Author to other parties isn't the same as a law that requires the rights to pass to other parties. In other words, it seems to me that the Copyright Clause implies that it should be possible for an Author to possess the rights granted. If there is no way that "limited Times" of the law can be granted "to Authors" (because, after all, they must be dead for 70 years before they expire) then surely there is a conflict between the constitution and the law here.
Right?
First of all, let's start with the United States Constitution. Article I, Section 8, Clause 8 of the United States Constitution (often referred to as the "Copyright Clause") forms the basis on which Congress established the U.S. Patent and Copyright law. That clause is as follows:
To promote the Progress of Science and useful Arts, by securing for limited Times to Authors and Inventors the exclusive Right to their respective Writings and Discoveries.I have two questions concerning the constitution and copyright.
Question 1
How does this clause establish that Authors (and Inventors for that matter) can sell their rights?
And even if we grant that Authors and Inventors can sell their rights to their writings and discoveries, how does that grant congress the power to allow companies and individuals who are not authors nor inventors to continue to sell these exclusive rights?
This is important when you consider how Apple, Microsoft and others just purchased Nortel's patents. Nortel was assigned these rights by actual inventors (mostly their employees, one presumes). But now Nortel is selling them to Apple and Microsoft. In the end, these "Discoveries" are controlled by parties that had nothing to do with the development of these Discoveries. These parties can now deny other companies access to these Discoveries, or extract payments for access to these Discoveries, and all without having done anything to "promote progress".
Ignoring the fact that there is little way to justify this state of affairs in the context of promoting progress, it remains that this clause seems to have been expanded to mean:
To promote the Progress of Science and useful Arts, Exclusive Rights to Writings and Discoveries may be created by Authors and Inventors. These rights can then be freely assigned and traded to other individuals and corporations without limitation.Now, I likely didn't do the best job with capturing what patent and copyright law does. But without question the reality of copyright and patent law requires a huge stretch of the Copyright Clause.
Question 2
How can a copyright term of an Author's life + 70 years be constitutional?
Here the law is quite clearly creating something beyond the Copyright clause. By definition an Author is *not* granted exclusive rights to their writings by current copyright law, because by law the exclusive rights must extend past the death of the Author!
It would seem reasonable to assume that the "limited Times" referred to in the constitution should at least be possible for an Author to possess. The assumption that these rights might pass from the Author to other parties isn't the same as a law that requires the rights to pass to other parties. In other words, it seems to me that the Copyright Clause implies that it should be possible for an Author to possess the rights granted. If there is no way that "limited Times" of the law can be granted "to Authors" (because, after all, they must be dead for 70 years before they expire) then surely there is a conflict between the constitution and the law here.
Right?
